Not in this case...

In this case, it wouldn't be coercive. The US federal government wouldn't require drug companies to sell them anything. The government simply has a max price it will pay for certain drugs. The drug companies can sell them at that price or they won't. How is this coercive?

Expat Teacher | May 8, 2007 - 8:51pm

Reply

The content of this field is kept private and will not be shown publicly.
  • Lines and paragraphs break automatically.
  • Images can be added to this post.

More information about formatting options

CAPTCHA
This question is for testing whether you are a human visitor and to prevent automated spam submissions.